In my book, the quantity equation is presented as $$M\bar{V}=PY$$ And on the next page, the author presents its percentage-change form: $$\% \ \text{Change in}\ M + \% \ \text{Change in}\ V = \% \ \text{Change in}\ P + \% \ \text{Change in}\ Y$$ My question is: where exactly does the second equation come from? I've tried manipulating the original equation to see if I could get the percentage-change form, but I didn't get anywhere. Any help will be appreciated. Thanks.
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I've actually found an explanation in a footnote in another chapter of the book (see below), but there's still one thing I don't understand: what are we differentiating with respect to? If it's $Y$, then $d(PY)=P$; if it's $P$, then $d(PY)=Y$; unless we're actually differentiating with respect to some third variable of which $P$ and $Y$ are both functions. In this case, what would that variable be? (I may be misunderstanding it too). Thanks.
Here's the explanation (Mankiw Macroeconomics 7th edition, page 26):
The proof that this trick works begins with the product rule from calculus: $$d(PY)=Y \ dP+P \ dY$$ Now divide both sides of this equation by PY to obtain: $$d(PY)/PY)=dP/P+dY/Y$$ Notice that all three terms in this equation are percentage changes.