It’s obvious that WARP does not imply SARP, since WARP does not rule out cyclic choices, whereas SARP does.
The term “Strong” axiom suggests that it encompasses the “weak” axiom. But this is not obvious to me from the definition.
Does any choice structure that satisfies SARP also satisfy WARP?
Similarly, the "generalized" axiom of revealed preference (GARP) seems to encompass SARP, but again, I can't see this from the definition.
WARP: If $x,y\in B$, and $x\in C(B)$, then we cannot find a $B_2$ such that $x,y\in B_2$ and $y\in C(B_2)$ but not $x\in C(B_2)$.
SARP: Assume for all $B$ the choice $c(B)$ is only one element. If $x_i,x_{i+1}\in B_i$, and $x_i = c(B_i)$, for all $i\in \{1,N-1\}$, then $x_1=c(B_1)\notin B_N$.
GARP: if $p_i\cdot x_{i+1}\leq p_i\cdot x_i$ for $i\in \{1, N-1\}$ and $p_N\cdot x_{1}\leq p_N\cdot x_N$, then those inequalities must be equalities.
(GARP specifically assumes $p$ are price vectors and $x$ are consumption bundles, whereas the other two axioms apply to any type of choice structure.)