Today I faced a term "finite samples" in reading Borusyak (2021)'s work:
We conclude the section by providing simulation evidence that the efficiency gains from using our estimator are sizable, that its sensitivity to some parallel trend violations is no larger than that of the alternatives, and that our inference tools perform well in finite samples
I did a search about the "finite sample" and "infinite sample"
Sampling from an infinite population is handled by regarding the population as represented by a distribution. ... A random sample from an infinite population is therefore considered as a random sample from a distribution
It seems to me that regarding "finite sample", we randomly choose a sample in a population and analyze this sample and draw a conclusion for a population, and in an "infinite sample", we test for the whole population data to draw a conclusion for the population, is it correct?