I have run into a CES function that seems to be very closer to standard but with a small disaggregation of the share parameter into two parameters (primal share) and (input shift). I am hoping someone can provide a reference to that introduction and the reasoning behind the disaggregation.
The standard form of the CES function is of course:
\begin{equation} V=A\left[\sum_{i=1}^n\alpha_ix_i^\rho\right]^{1/\rho}, \end{equation}
Where \begin{equation} a_i - share \ parameter \\ \sigma=\frac{1}{1-\rho} - elasticity \end{equation}
However GTAP CGE documents describe the CES (standard form as the following):
In production, the CES function is used to select an optimal combination of inputs (either goods and/or factors) subject to a CES production function. In consumer demand, the CES is used as a utility (or sub-utility) or preference function. In either case, the purpose is to minimize the cost of purchasing the ’inputs’ subject to the production or utility function. In generic terms the system takes the following form: \begin{equation} min \ X_i = \sum_i{P_i X_i} \end{equation}
subject to constraint: \begin{equation} V=A\left[\sum_{i=1}^n\alpha_i(\lambda_iX_i)^\rho\right]^{1/\rho}, \end{equation}
The objective function represents aggregate expenditure. The constraint expression will be referred to as the CES primal function. The parameter $A$ is an aggregate shifter that can be used to shift the overall production function (or utility function). Each input, $X_i$, is multiplied by an input-specific shifter, $\lambda_i$, that can be used to implement input specific productivity increases (for example biased technological change), or specific changes in consumer preferences.
The (primal) share coefficients, $\alpha_i$, are typically calibrated to some base year data and held fixed. The CES exponent, $\rho$, is linked to the curvature of the CES function (and will be explained further below). For given component prices, $P_i$, and a given level of production or utility $V$ , solving the optimization program above will yield optimal demand functions for the inputs, $X_i$.
My question surrounds the change of the term $a_ix_i^\rho$ to $a_i(\lambda_ix_i)^\rho$. Clearly there is some qualitative / model interpretation reason for creating this difference. The paper says that $a_i$ becomes the primal share parameter, and $\lambda_i$ becomes the input shift parameter which can represent specific input factor productivity increases or changes in preference.
I am hoping someone can answer the following:
- What is the primal shift parameter and how does it differ from the original shift parameter?
- I assume the $A$ factor is just the original TFP (techonology) factor, is that correct?
- How exactly does $\lambda_i$ represent preference changes or techonology increases? Can that be described using some mathematical intuition?
- Where does this formulation come from? Is there a paper that built on top of the original CES paper from Solow, Minhas et. al.?
Would greatly appreciate the help!