I'll first present the assumptions Lucas made. First assume
$$
c_t = Ae^{\mu t}e^{-(1/2)\sigma^2}\varepsilon_t,
$$
where $\log \varepsilon_t \sim N(0, \sigma^2)$. Under these assumptions, we have $\mathrm{E}e^{-(1/2)\sigma^2}\varepsilon_t = 1$ and $\mathrm{E}c_t = Ae^{\mu t}$. The costs of business cycles are then defined as the $\lambda$ that solves (I'm sure Lucas gives enough intuition for why one defines it as such)
$$
\mathrm{E}\left\{\sum_{t=0}^\infty \beta^t \frac{[(1 + \lambda)c_t]^{1 - \gamma}}{1 - \gamma}\right\} = \sum_{t=0}^\infty \beta^t \frac{(Ae^{\mu t})^{1 - \gamma}}{1 - \gamma},
$$
which holds if for every $t$
$$
\mathrm{E}\left\{\beta^t\frac{[(1 + \lambda)c_t]^{1 - \gamma}}{1 - \gamma}\right\} = \beta^t\frac{(Ae^{\mu t})^{1 - \gamma}}{1 - \gamma}.
$$
Before we get to the cancelling step, plug in the assumed process for $c_t$:
$$
\mathrm{E}\left\{\beta^t\frac{[(1 + \lambda) Ae^{\mu t}e^{-(1/2)\sigma^2}\varepsilon_t]^{1 - \gamma}}{1 - \gamma}\right\} = \beta^t\frac{(Ae^{\mu t})^{1 - \gamma}}{1 - \gamma}.
$$
Since the only random variable is $\varepsilon_t$, you can pull everything that does not depend on $\varepsilon_t$ out of the expectation to get
$$
\left\{\beta^t\frac{[(1 + \lambda) Ae^{\mu t}e^{-(1/2)\sigma^2}]^{1 - \gamma}}{1 - \gamma}\right\}\mathrm{E}\varepsilon_t^{1 - \gamma} = \beta^t\frac{(Ae^{\mu t})^{1 - \gamma}}{1 - \gamma}.
$$
Comparing the left and right hand sides, we can cancel out a bunch of terms to get
$$
(1 + \lambda)^{1 - \gamma}e^{-(1 - \gamma)(1/2)\sigma^2}\mathrm{E}\varepsilon_t^{1 - \gamma} = 1.
$$
Now write (recall that $\log\varepsilon_t$ is normally distributed, and $\mathrm{E}e^{tX} = e^{\tilde{\mu} t + \tilde{\sigma}^2 t^2/2}$ for any normally distributed random variable $X$ with mean $\tilde{\mu}$ and variance $\tilde{\sigma}^2$)
\begin{align}
\mathrm{E}\varepsilon_t^{1 - \gamma} &= \mathrm{E}e^{(1-\gamma)\log \varepsilon_t} \\
&= e^{(1- \gamma)^2 \sigma^2 /2}
\end{align}
Plugging that in and rearranging, we have
$$
(1 + \lambda)^{1- \gamma} = e^{\gamma (1 - \gamma)(1/2)\sigma^2}.
$$
Now take logs of both sides
$$
(1 - \gamma) \log(1 + \lambda) = \gamma (1 - \gamma) (1/2) \sigma^2,
$$
Cancelling terms and noting that $\log(1 + \lambda) \approx \lambda$ for small $\lambda$, we get
$$
\lambda \approx \frac{1}{2}\gamma \sigma^2.
$$
Hope this helped!