This may seem like a silly question... Well... I guess, because it really is... But I have just realized that the intuition behind both principles may not be mutually exclusive.
Consider we would like to estimate a cross-price elasticity of demand such as:
$$\ln(x_i) = \beta_0 + \beta_{i,i} \ln (P_i) + \beta_{i,j} \sum_{j \neq i} \ln(P_j) + \epsilon$$
The marginal effects then correspond exactly to cross-price elasticity:
$$\frac{d \ln(x_i)}{d \ln(P_j)} = \frac{dx/x}{dP_j /P_j}$$
Interestingly, this is also similar to estimation of cobb-douglas production function, defined as:
$$ y = z_1^{\beta_1} \cdot z_2^{\beta_2} \cdot \ldots \cdot z_m^{\beta_m} \cdot \epsilon$$
Which could be logarithmized as:
$$ \ln(y) = \beta_1 \ln(z_1) + \beta_2 \ln(z_2) + \dots + \beta_m \ln(z_m) + \ln(\epsilon) $$
This would imply that in the first model, we could view the demand as a result of production function (if $\beta_0$ is equal to 0):
$$x_i = P_i^{\beta_{i,i}} \cdot \prod_{j \neq i} P_j^{\beta_{i,j}} \cdot e^{\epsilon}$$
Is this intuition correct?
Can we use it to something?
How would we interpret the elasticity of substitution of cross-price elasticity?