I was traversing the web with examples about the sunk cost fallacy, and bumped into some example that a bit confuses me. The example is taken From here (https://market.subwiki.org/wiki/Sunk_cost_fallacy) and I repeat it below in short. My question is whether it is a fair example of sunk cost fallacy?
Consider person owns an object A, and then the person loses it. Then (quote from that link): “Assuming rational behavior, whether a person chooses to buy or not buy should be independent of whether the person loses the money or the object. However, what the sunk cost fallacy predicts that losing the object ￼ makes the person less likely to buy another copy of ￼, because the person does not want to admit that the initial purchase of ￼ was wasteful”
I’m confused and not sure because this example is so much different from traditional examples when you keep spending money/effort/time because you already did it in the past. Could anyone clarify?