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juarez_Samuel
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In an intertemporal (2-period) consumption model, why is the investment rate independent of discount factor?
@Giskard i just realized what it's wrong. I thought that the implicit theorem function will show a different relationship implied by the third first order condition but it does'nt
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In an intertemporal (2-period) consumption model, why is the investment rate independent of discount factor?
@Giskard could you briefly explain what is incorrect? we have an optimization problem with 3 endogenous variables and 1 restriction, so we have 4 first order condition. I only substituted one in the other, until I reached a system of 2 equations with 2 endogenous variables
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In an intertemporal (2-period) consumption model, why is the investment rate independent of discount factor?
I make explicit that $R_{c_{1}}$ depends on $h$, so it is $R_{c_{1}}(h)$
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In an intertemporal (2-period) consumption model, why is the investment rate independent of discount factor?
And aswering your question @asvecon, you are right, $\beta$ appear only in the first equation, But $h$ appear in both, remember that $c_{1}=R_{c_{1}}= y-h + \frac{ w(h)}{1+r} - \frac{ c_{2}}{1+r}$, so $R_{c_{1}}$ is a function of h. So $\beta$ affect $h$.
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In an intertemporal (2-period) consumption model, why is the investment rate independent of discount factor?
Now, if $ h \neq r $ this means that there is no perfect mobility between the two types of investment or the two uses for your savings. If there were perfect mobility, nobody would invest in the market that returns $ r $ or $ h $, depending on which one was less. So I assume that this agent has access to a possibly international market that is not integrated into international markets. In addition, the rate that is higher is what all your savings will go to.
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In an intertemporal (2-period) consumption model, why is the investment rate independent of discount factor?
Yes, you are right @Giskard, you can save at r competitive. But that does not change that to invest you have to save; h is "invested" or "saved" (you have to reduce $ c_ {1} $ to invest in $ h $ as it is a two-period model only) in competitive markets otherwise the payment function would be $ w (h, w) $, since the size of your investment would affect the return of $ h $. Almost nothing changes from what I said in the answer. But i forgot that you can invest in two assets.
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Solving Constrained Optimization Problem with Two-Period Model of Human Capital
I just realized that changing the restriction of $c_{2}$, does not change nothing fundamentally.
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A maximization problem with multiple goods and integrated markets
Ha! i just realized that you solved the problem, but i hope that you may find my answer valuable anyway.
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In an intertemporal (2-period) consumption model, why is the investment rate independent of discount factor?
$h$ appears in two first order conditions, you need to solve them to see of what depends $h$
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In an intertemporal (2-period) consumption model, why is the investment rate independent of discount factor?
If it's not clear that the dependence exists. You can just substitute the restriction on the utility function for some $c_{i}$ and derivate for $h$ and $c_{2}$, and it's more clear that a dependence exists. Or just choose some utility function and solve it.
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Solving Constrained Optimization Problem with Two-Period Model of Human Capital
The short answer is that the optimization problem is not defined if $ \theta_ {2} = 0 $, but you can make it defined; in that case, $ v $ will be equal to 0. and there will be a dependency when $ \theta_ {2} $ changes from 0 to some positive value. See the edition for more details, and to see how to make this dependency different from 0 $\forall \theta_{2}$.