I see many plots where x is wealth and y is utility. If a person is risk averse, he has a concave line on the plot. If the person is risk neutral, her line on the plot is straight.
On the other hand, I see from lecture notes and other websites relating the concept risk averse to risk to the concept of diminishing marginal utility of consumption (such as eating more cookies). This is where I get confused. I would be happy to earn 100 dollars now, but I imagine if I have one billion dollars, I wouldn't care much about bending down to pick up a 100 dollar bill. I don't see how this has anything to do with my risk appetite. I simply don't care for more money when I already have enough money to buy everything I want, the same way I don't care for another cookie when I am already stuffed. In this scenario, even if I am a risk neutral person, my line on the plot should still be concave. And this seems to contradict with the description above.
So my question is, what is causing the contradiction here? What am I missing?
Here is one of my guess: The examples I've seen are always based on conditions that higher expected return bears higher risk, so maybe while the x-axis is wealth, it implies higher risk. But then, higher wealth shouldn't necessarily mean higher risk, because a person can work at a higher paying job and gain guaranteed wealth.
This problem is especially confusing when looking at absolute and relative risk aversion. No term in the formula is risk! There is only wealth. Yet the end result is a measurement for risk aversion.
This post is similar to my question. But it doesn't have an accepted answer yet. And the top voted answer currently says risk averse is defined as such, and that it is not the risk averse we think of in our everyday language. But the example in wikipedia and other lecture notes/websites I read usually explains it as the intuitive risk averse in everyday language, so I don't think it answers my question.