0
$\begingroup$

If I have range of data with aggregate GDP per capita and population data (not only on a national level, but also regional and local level). Can I use this aggregate GDP per capita to calculate the GDP of a regional/local area, if I have the population numbers for these areas? For example, aggregate GDP per capita for given country is 100 in a given currency, and this city has 10000 people. Then the GDP for this city is 100*10000 people = 1 million in a given currency.

Improve this question
$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Is it reasonable to assume that every region has the same GDP per capita? This amounts to assuming that every region is equally productive. What is the purpose of doing what you propose? $\endgroup$
    – smcc
    Commented Jul 31, 2023 at 18:16

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
0
$\begingroup$

Can I use this aggregate GDP per capita to calculate the GDP of a regional/local area, if I have the population numbers for these areas?

No it is well known that virtually every country has non-trivial regional disparities. This would only make sense for a country where all regions are very homogeneous, and I can’t even think of such country as an example.

Improve this answer
$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.