I have a question about the gravity equation. In the Feenstra textbook, on page 144, it is stated that
In the monopolistic competition model [...] the countries are completely specialized in different product varieties. Trade in these product varieties is referred to as intraindustry trade...
On page 145, it is stated that
Then it follows that a good produced in any country is sent to all other countries in proportion to the purchasing country's GDP.
To formalize this, consider a multicountry framework where $i,j=1...C$ denotes countries and $k=1,...N$ denotes products. Let $y_{k}^{i}$ denote country $i's$ production of good $k.$ Since prices are the same across all countries, we normalize them to unity, so $y_{i}^{k}$ actually measures the value of production. The total GDP in each country is measured by $$Y^{i}=\sum_{k=1}^{N}y_{k}^{i}$$ and world GDP is $$Y^{W}=\sum_{i=1}^{C}y^{i}.$$
Here is where I am confused. I was under the impression that each country produces a single variety of the differentiated good. In that case, the total GDP in each country should just be $$Y^{i}=y_{k}^{i}$$ where $k$ is specific to $i$. In other words, I understand the statement as each country producing just one variety of the same good. I believe this is an incorrect interpretation for two reasons:
If that were the case, the number of goods should actually be $C$, not $N$. (It could be that $C=N$ but the author does not specify this)
The GDP by the product would be $y_{k}^{i}$ but by the expenditure approach would be $Y^{i}=\sum_{k=1}^{N}y_{k}^{i}$.
Confronted with the likely possibility that my interpretation is fallacious, I don't know what the alternative interpretation is. What else could the statement “countries are completely specialized in different product” varieties mean?